Question for the thinkers: A German and an American invest money....?

A German (Jan) and an American (Joe) decide to invest in a Camera, in order to resell it afterwards.
The camera is being purchased in the US and costs $100.
Jan invests 32.20Euros (50$ equivalent).
Joe invests $50. This makes a total of $100.

They resell the Camera in Germany for 200Euros.
Jan gets 100Eur, which is $155.
Joe gets 100Eur.

Net Income:
Jan makes a net income of 68.20Eur.
Joe makes a net income of $105.

$105=68.20Eur

Now Jan complaints, Joe has a greater advantage. What could he possibly mean?

I don't really know how to approach this problem. I mean they make the same profit. But Jan's argument is that he could only buy 68 products in a "Euro General", while Joe can buy 105 products in a "Dollar General" (Those stores where everything costs only one dollar/Euro). What would be a solution to the problem?

Thanks!

I mean, Jan would have to keep up with Joe and invest 77Euros, as Joe invests $77.
He would have a higher investment, but that way the magnitude would be the same, right? Is that a solution?

Also, is Jan maybe only looking at it from the profit side and is missing the investment side of the whole deal?
If Joe has $300 available and invests $50, he is left with only $250.
However, Jan has to invest only 32.30Eur of his 300Eur, and is thus left with more, 268Euros. So Joe is pretty much investing more, pretending the Price index between Euro and dollar is meant to be 1:1, which it is (as far as I know, or at least pretty darn close to 1:1). Does anybody understand me?

Jan exchanges currency for American money and they both go to Dollar General! or vice versa!

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